Q No 1:We can divide the whole Software Engineering process in 4 distinct phases namely vision, definition, development, and maintenance. Which of the following is not among “Definition related” activities of software development?
A: Requirement verification
B: Change Control
C: Requirement Engineering
D: Software Requirements
B
Q No2 :Which writing style is best regarding identifier role in enhancing the readability of a program?
A: If (Flag = = 0)
B: If (Flag = = START.NUMBER)
C: If (Z = = START.NUMBER)
D: If (Z= =0)
A
Q No3 :Inspections can check conformance with a specification but not conformance with the …- ………-requirements
A: Customer’s real
B: Developer
C: Tester
D: Manger
A
Q No 4:Testing is an intellectually demanding activity and has a lifecycle ………- to software development
A: Equal
B: Parallel
C: Sequential
D: In contrast
B
Q No 5:A memory leak bug is one in which memory is somehow allocated from either the operating system or an ………- “pool”, but never deallocated when the memory is finished being used
A: Mixed memory
B: External memory
C: Internal Memory
D: Mutually exculive memory
C
Q No 6:What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by whitebox testing?
A: Runtime errors
B: Logic errors
C: Performance errors
D: Input errors
D
Q No 7:The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of …………..
A: Statements in the program
B: Cycles in the program
C: Errors in the program
D: Independent logic paths in the program
D
Q No 8:………….. is intended to define a many to many relationship between objects so that when one object changes state all its dependants are notified and updated automatically
A: Observer Pattren
B: Facade Pattren
C: Singleton Pattren
D: Joint Pattren
A
Q No 9:In the switch statement, cases should always end with …………..
A: Return
B: Semi colon
C: Break
D: Full stop
C
Q No 10:Abstraction and encapsulation are two important tools that can help in managing and mastering the …………… of a program
A: Usability
B: Complexity
C: Understandability
D: Reliability
B
Q No 11:Which of the following is/are NOT one of the umbrella activities?
A: Requirement analysis
B: Architecture design
C: Architecture design
D: All of the given options
D
Q No 12:What are the characteristics of software?
A: Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
B: Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
C: Software can be custom built or custom builD:
D: All mentioned above
All mentioned above
Q No 13:Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?
A: System software
B: Application software
C: Scientific software
D: None of the above.
System software
Q No 14:Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach for the development, operation and maintenance of software.
A: True
B: False
True
Q No 15:RAD Software process model stands for ….. .
A: Rapid Application Development.
B: Relative Application Development.
C: Rapid Application Design.
D: Recent Application Development.
Rapid Application Development.
Q No 16:Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains …………….
A: Project planning
B: Scope management
C: Project estimation
D: All mentioned above
All mentioned above
Q No 17:COCOMO stands for …… .
A: COnsumed COst MOdel
B: COnstructive COst MOdel
C: COmmon COntrol MOdel
D: COmposition COst MOdel
COnstructive COst MOdel
Q No 18:Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
A: Functional Requirement.
B: Nonfunctional Requirement.
C: Goals of implementation.
D: Algorithm for software implementation.
Algorithm for software implementation.
Q No 19:What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
A: Spiral model
B: Big Bang model
C: V-model
D: Waterfall model
Waterfall model
Q No 20:Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand, identifying and addressing the impact of project on organization and personnel etc?
A: Software Design
B: Feasibility Study
C: Requirement Gathering
D: System Analysis
System Analysis
Q No 21:. Which design identifies the software as a system with many components interacting with each other?
A: Architectural design
B: High-level design
C: Detailed design
D: Both B & C
Architectural design
Q No 22:. Software consists of …… .
A: Set of instructions + operating procedures
B: Programs + documentation + operating procedures
C: Programs + hardware manuals
D: Set of programs
B
Q No 23:. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
A: Quality management
B: Risk management
C: Performance management
D: Efficiency management
Risk management
Q No 24:. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct ….. .
A: Unambiguous
B: Consistent
C: Verifiable
D: None of the above
Unambiguous
Q No 25:. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
A: Requirements elicitation
B: Requirements analysis
C: Requirements design
D: Requirements documentation
Requirements design
Q No 26:. FAST stands for ………….. .
A: Functional Application Specification Technique
B: Fast Application Specification Technique
C: Facilitated Application Specification Technique
D: None of the above
Facilitated Application Specification Technique
Q No 27:. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is …… .
A: Reliability
B: Efficiency
C: Portability
D: All of the above
Efficiency
Q No 28:. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called ………….. .
A: Adaptive maintenance
B: Corrective maintenance
C: Perfective maintenance
D: Preventive maintenance
Adaptive maintenance
Q No 29:. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is …………… .
A: Verifiable
B: Traceable
C: Modifiable
D: Complete
Verifiable
Q No 30:. Aggregation represents …… .
A: is.a relationship
B: part.of relationship
C: composed.of relationship
D: none of above
composed.of relationship
Q No 31:. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as….. .
A: RE = P/L
B: RE = P + L
C: RE = P*L
D: RE = 2* P *L
RE = P*L
Q No 32:Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are ….. .
A: 15
B: 20
C: 25
D: 28
20
Q No 33:ER model shows the …………… .
A: Static view
B: Functional view
C: Dynamic view
D: All the above
Static view
Q No 34:IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for …………… .
A: Software Requirement Specification
B: Software design
C: Testing
D: Both (A) and (B)
Software Requirement Specification
Q No 35:One of the fault base testing techniques is …… .
A: Unit Testing
B: Beta Testing
C: Stress Testing
D: Mutation Testing
Mutation Testing
Q No 36:If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with …….
A: Object Oriented Analysis
B: Object Oriented Design
C: Object Oriented Analysis and Design
D: None of the above
Object Oriented Analysis
Q No 37:In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
A: ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False
B: i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C: ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
D: ii, iii and iv are True; i is false
i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
Q No 38:Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?
A: Creating test suites from the test cases
B: Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C: Comparing actual results
D: Designing the Tests
Designing the Tests
Q No 39:The Test Cases Derived from use cases …………… .
A: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
B: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system.
C: Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
D: Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
Q No 40:What can static analysis NOT find?
A: The use of a variable before it has been defineD:
B: Unreachable (“dead”) code.
C: Memory leaks.
D: Array bound violations.
Memory leaks.
Q No 41:Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed ?
A: HR Plan
B: Manager Plan
C: Team Plan
D: Staff Development Plan
Staff Development Plan
Q No 42:Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of …………… .
A: Acceptance testing
B: Integration testing
C: System Testing
D: Unit testing
Acceptance testing
Q No 43:The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is …… .
A: Evolutionary Development Model
B: Waterfall Model
C: Prototyping
D: Iterative Enhancement Model
Evolutionary Development Model
A COCOMO model is ………….. .
A: Common Cost Estimation Model.
B: Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
C: Complete Cost Estimation Model.
D: Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
Q No 44:SRD stands for …………… .
A: Software Requirements Definition
B: Structured Requirements Definition
C: Software Requirements Diagram
D: Structured Requirements Diagram
Structured Requirements Definition
Q No 45:The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called …………… .
A: CASE Tools
B: CAME tools
C: CAQE tools
D: CARE tools
CASE Tools
Q No 46:Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?
A: Design
B: Detailed design
C: Coding
D: All mentioned above
All mentioned above
Q No 47:Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an argument?
A: Strict evaluation
B: Recursion
C: Calculus
D: Pure functions
Strict evaluation
Q No 48:Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?
A: Risk avoidance
B: Risk monitoring
C: Risk timing
D: Contingency planning
Risk timing
Q No 49:Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated from past experience are called ….. .
A: Business risks
B: Predictable risks
C: Project risks
D: Technical risks
Predictable risks