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CHAPTER 14

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options :


(1)        In metals, current is produced only due to the now of

(a) Protons     

(b) Electrons  

(c) Free electrons     

(d) Neutrons


(2)        In electrolyte, current is produced due to the now of

(a) Positive charge     

(b) Negative charges

(c) Both positive and negative charges

(d) None of these       


(3)        the he rate of now of electric charge through any cross-sectional area is called

( a) Electrostatics       

(b) Electric current   

(c) e.m.f         

(d) Voltage


(4)        The SI unit of electric current is

(a) volt

(b) Farad        

(e) Capacitånce         

(d) Ampere


(5)        The equis alent current of positive charges which flows through a conductor is known as

( a) Electronic  current

(b) conventional current

(c) Electrostatic          

(d) Ampere


(6)        the current due to negative charges and an equivalent current due to positive  charges always flow in the

( a ) Opposite direction       

(b) Same direction

(c) Perpendicular to each other         

(d) None of these


(7) In electricity. we assume that electricity. current is always due to the flow of 

(a) Negative charges 

(b) Neutral particles

(c) positive charges   

(d) Both negative and positive charges


(8)        the conventional current of positive charges flow from the point of

(a) Higher potential to a point of lower potential

(b) Lower potential to a point of higher potential

(c) Lower potential to a point of lower potential

(d) Higher potential to a point of higher potential


(9)        The current constituted by negative charges flows from a point of

(a) higher potential to a point of a lower potential

( b) lower potential to a point of higher potential

(C) lower potential to a point of’ lower potential

(d) Higher potential to a point To Higher potential


( 10)     When we connect a battery across a conductor the energy is provided in charges to the conductor by the

(a) Magnetic field produced in the conductor

(b) Electromagnetic  field produced in the conductor           

(c) Electric field produced in the conductor

 (d) None of the above             


(11)      Energy is produced to transfer the electrons from positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal by the 

(a) Electrical process

(b) Chemical process

(c) Thernval process

(d) Magnetic process


( 12)     The current through a metallic conductor is because of the motion of

(a) Protons     

(b) Neutrons   

(c) Electrons  

(d) Free electrons


(13)      In liquids and gases, the current is due to the motion of

(a) Negative charges 

(b) Positive charges

(c) Both negative and positive charges

(d) Neutral particles


(14)      Free electrons are

(a) Visually bound                 

(b) Fixed         

(c) Loosely bound    

(d) Tightly fixed          


(15)      The direction of conventional current flowing in a circuit is

(a)        from negative to positive in the external circuit and from positive to negative within the source of potential difference (battery) 

(b) from positive to negative in the external circuit and from negative to positive within the source of P.D. 

(c)        From positive to negative throughout the circuit.

(d)        From negative to positive throughout the circuit.


(16)      The direction of the electronic current in the closed circuit is

(a) along the flow of electrons

(b) opposite to the flow of electrons

(c) From positive to negative in the external circuit   

(d) along the direction of positive charges.


(17)      If a charge ‘Q’ flows through any cross-section of the conductor in time ‘t’ second,  the current ‘I ‘ is given by

(a) I = Qt

(b) I = Q/t

(c) I = t/Q

(dl I = Q2/t


(18)      One coulomb per second is equal to

(a) One volt

(b) One ampere

(c) One watt

(d) One ohm


(19)      Which of the following represents electronic current

(a) ErgC-1

(b) Cs-1

(c) J s-1

(d) DyneS-1


(20) If I ampere current flows charge flow through this  in lhour will be  

(a) 3600 C

(b)7200C

(c) 1C

(d) 2C


(21)      Butteries convert

( a) electrical energy into heat energy

(b) electrical energy into chemical energy

(c) electrical energy into electrical energy

(d) heat energy into chemical energy


(22)      The electronic current is due to the flow of 

(a) negative charge

(b) positive charge     

(c) both (a) and (b)     

(d) none of the above


(23)      The conventional current Is due to the flow of

(a) negative charge carriers  

(b) neutrarcharge 

(c) positive charge carriers

(d) both negative and positive charges carriers.


(24)      The energy required to move n charge from one point to another in the circuit Is called

(a) e.m.f         

(b) Potential difference

(c) Resistance

(d) Volt


(25)      Volt is n unit of

 (a) Potential difference         

(b) e,m.f

(c) Potential difference and emf.    

(d) None of these       


26).      The energy supplied In driving one coulomb of charge round a complete circuit In which the cell ls connected Is called

(a) e.m.f

(b) Potential difference

(c) Resistance

(d) Volt


(27)      The Instrument with which we can detect the presence of current In a circuit Is known as

(a) Voltmeter  

(b) Ammeter  

(c) Galvanometer     

(d) Ohm meter


 (28)     In order to detect the current, galvanometer Is connected

(a) In parallel  

(b) in series

(c) May be parallel or in series          

(d) A ny where in the circuit 


(29)      If the needle of galvanometer shows some deflection, it would indicate the

(a) Presence of current       

(b) Absence of current

(c) A large current      

(d) None of these


(30)      A galvanometer is a very 

(a) Large instrument  

(b) Small instrument

(c)Insensitive instrument

(d) Sensitive instrument


(31)      A resistance which is connected with the galvanometer in order to convert it into ammeter should have

(a) High resistance   

(b) Very high resistance    

(c) Low resistance     

(d) Very low resistance


(32)      The  resistance of an ammeter should be                               

(a) Height       

(b) Very high  

(c) Low          

(d) Very  low                            


(33)      In order to measure the current in a circuit, ammeter should be connected

(a) Parallel 10 battery

(b) In series ill the circuit

(c) May be parallel or in series          

(d) N one of these  


   

(34)      When ammeter is connected in the circuit, the positive terminal of ammeter should be connected with the 

(a) Negative terminal of the battery   

(b) Positive terminal of the battery

(c) Any terminal of the battery           

(d) None of these


(35)      The potential difference can be directly measured by the instrument known as

(a) Ammeter

(b) potentiometer

(c) voltmeter            

(d) Ohm meter           


(36)      The series resistance„ which is _ connected  galvanometer to ( it Into  voltmeter usually has value in

(a) Ohms

(b) several hundred Ohms

(c) several thousand Ohms

(d) Hundred thousand Ohms


(37).     Voltmeter is always connected in a circuit in the

(a) series

(b) parallel

(c) May be in series or parallel

(d) None of these


(38)      A good voltmeter is that which draws

(a) No current

(b) Single current     

(c) Large current        

(d) Very large current


(39)      The relation V = IR represents

(a) Ampere’s law        

(b) Coulomb’s law

(c) Faraday’s law       

(d) ohm’s law


 (40)     Ohm’s law is applicable to

(a) Liquids only           

(b) Gases only

(c) Liquid conductors only

(d) Metallic eonduetofs only


(41)      Ohm the unit of

(a) Current     

(b) Capacitance         

(c) Electric intensity   

(d) Resistance


(42)      Ohm can be defined as

(a) Volt / Coulomb VC– 1

(b) volt / Ampere VA – 1

(c) Ampere / volt CV– 1

(d) ampere / volt AV– 1


(43)          Circuit breaker works on the principle of:

(a) Electric current   

(b) Joule’s law   

(c) Electromagnetism

(d) None of them


(44)      Thermistor is

(a) A heat sensitive resistor

(b) potential divider

(c) constant resistor   

(d) An ordinary resistor


(45)      The graphical representation of Ohm’s law is

(a) Hyperbola 

(b) Ellipse       

(c) Parabola   

(d) Straight line


(46)      The value of current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the

(a) Resistance

(b) Capacitance         

(c) Potential 

(d) None of these       


(47)      The property of a substance which opposes the flow of current through it is called

(a) Conductivity         

(b) Capacitance         

(c) Resistance          

(d) Conduction


(48)      If a potential of 220V is applied across a conductor and a current of 2A  through it. What would be the resistance of the conductor?

(a) 210 ☊

(b) 440 ☊

(c) 880 ☊

(d) 110 ohm


(49)      The resistance of a meter cube of the substance is called   

(a) conductivity

(b) penni!tivity

(c) resistivity 

(d) susceptibility 


(50).       At a particular temperature, the resistance of a wire will directly proportional to its

(a) Length     

(b) Area of cross-section

(c) Shape       

(d) Colour


(51)      At a particular temperature, the resistance of a wire will inversely proportional to its

 (a) Length      

(b) Area cross-section

(c) Temperature         

(d) Colour 


(52)      If we increase the length of a “ire tb four times of its original length, what will tie its resistance?

(a) The same

(b) Double

(c) Four times

(d) Eight Innes


(53)      If we increase the cross-sectional area of the wire to double of its original area it resistance will become

(a) The same 

(b) Halved      

(c) One fourth

(d) Doubled


(54)      Safety device used in place of fuse is:

(a) Socket   

(b) Earth wire   

(c) Plug

(d) Circuit breaker


(55)        A small wire connected in series with the live wire is called:    

(a) Neutral wire

(b) Earth wire

(c) Fuse

(d) Circuit breaker





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CHAPTER 13

ELECTROSTATICS

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options :


1.      Study of charges at rest is called

(a) Electrostatics

(b) Magnetism

(c) Electrochemistry

(d) Electric Current


2.     An insulating rod is charged positively by rubbing. This is due to

(a) Deficiency of protons

(b) Excess of protons

(c) Deficiency of electrons

(d) Excess of electrons


3.       insulating rod is charged negatively, due to

(a) Deficiency of protons

(b) Excess of protons

(c) Deficiency of electrons

(d) Excess of electrons


4.      If we run a plastic comb through hair and then bring it near shell pieces of paper. The comb

(a) Attract them

(b) repel them

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these


5.      Electric charges can be produced by rubbing a neutral body with

(a) Chärged body

(b) Another neutral body

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these


6. SI unit of electric charge is

(a) Coulomb

(b) Ampere

(c) Volt

(d) Watt


7.      A positive charge

(a) Attract other positive

(b) Repel other positive charge

(c) Attract the natural charge

(d) Repels a neutral charge


8.     An object get excess charge when rubbed against another object

(a) Neutral

(b) Negative charged

(c) positively charge

(d) Object


9.      A body can be charged by

(a) Rubbing with another body

(b) Conduction

(c) Electrostatic induction

(d) All of these


10.     Only type charges exist

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four


I l.     If you rub the glass rod with a silk handkerchief,

(a) Glass rod acquires negative Charge while silk acquire positive charge

(b) Glass rod acquires positive Charge while silk acquire negative charge

(c) Both glass

(d) Both glass rod and silk acquire positive charge


12.     If you wipe the glass rod with a silk scarf, you will be charged for the following conditions:

(a) Heating

(b) Separation of change

(c) Rubbing

(d) electric force


13.     Which statement is correct?

(a) Similar charges attract each other

(b) Similar charges repel each other

(c) Similar charges attract and repel each other

(d) Similar charges either attract or repel one another


14.      Which statement is correct?

(a) Opposite charges attract each other

(b) Opposite charges repel each other

(c) Opposite charges attract and repel each other

(d) Opposite charges neither attract nor repel one another .


15.     Metals pre good conductors of electricity, because they have

(a) Large number of bonded electrons

(b) Small number of bonded electrons

(c) Large number of free electrons

(d) Small number of free electrons


16.      Free electrons are

(a) Tightly bound

(b) Fixed

(c) Loosely bound

(d) strongly fixed


17.      The number of electrons in one coulomb charge is equal to

(a) 6.25 x 1019

(b) 1.6 x 1019

(c) Zero

(d) 6.2 x 1021


18.      Like charges always

(a) Attract

(b) Repel

(c) Attract and repel

(d) None of these


19.       within the presence of a charged body an insulated inductor develops positive charge at one end and negative charges at other end, this process is named the

(a) Electrostatic induction

(b) Conduction

(c) Friction

(d) All of these


20.      Electroscope is an instrument used for

(a) Detecting presence of charge

(b) To detect the type of charges

(c) To identity conductor and insulator

(d) All of above


21.      Attraction or repulsion between them

(a) Two charged bodies

(b) Neutral body

(c) Non charged bodies

(d) All of these


22.      Who established the basic law of electric force between two stationary charged particles?

(a) planks

(b) frady

(c) Quantum

(d) Coulomb


23.     It is a fixed capacitor

(a) Paper capacitor

(b) Mica capacitor

(c) Both a and b

(d) Capacitors in radio sets


24.     In Mica capacitors the dielectric is

(a) Aluminum foils

(b) Mica

(c) Copper

(d) Polythene paper,


25,      Capacitors are used in

(a) Tuning Transmitters

(b) Receiver

(c) Transistor radio

(d) All of these


26.       In variable capacitors, the valve of capacitance can be

(a) Decrease

(b) Increased

(c) Both a and B

(d) Fixed


27.        A region around the charge in which it exerts electrostatic force on another charge is called

(a) Gravitational field

(b) Magnetic field

(c) Electric field

(d) All of these


28.       The equivalent capacitance is greater thin individual capacitance in

(a) Series combination

(b) Parallel combination

(c) Series and parallel combination

(d) All of them


29.        The spacing between the field lines shows the

(a) Strength of electric field

(b) Direction of electric field

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these


30.        Electroscope can be charge by the process

(a) Magnetism

(b) Internal reflection

(c) Electrostatic induction

(d) Electromagnetic tension


31.     the worth of constant K depends upon

(a) The system of units used

(b) Medium between the charges

(c) Quantity of the charges

(d) The system of units and therefore the medium between the charges


32.     If the space between the 2 charged bodies is halved, then what will force between them becomes

(a) Doubled

(b) Half

(c) fourfold

(d) One half


33.    If the space between two charges is doubled, what is going to be electric force between them will become

(a) fourfold

(b) Twice

(c) Half

(d) One fourth


34.     In variable capacitors

(a) Both the sets, of plates are fixed

(b) Both the sets of plates are moveable

(c) One set of plates is fixed and therefore the other is moveable

(d) Both the sets of plates are neither fixed not moveable


35.       Variable capacitors are utilized in

(a) Radio only

(b) Television only

(c) Radio and tv

(d) None of the above


36.      When capacitors are connected serial , their equivalent capacitance is adequate to

(a) the product of their individual capacitances

(b) The sum of their individual capacitanCe

(c) The sum of the reciprocals of the individual capacitances

(d) the product of their individual reciprocal capacitances


37. The space round the charge within which other charges are influenced by it’s called

(a) electric intensity

(b) electric field

(c) Electric flux

(d) electric potential


38. Force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at some extent within the field is known as

(a) field intensity

(b) Mågnetic field strength

(c) potential

(d) capacity


39. The force per Unit Charge is understood a

(a) Electric flux

(b) Electric intensity

(c) electric potential

(d) Electric volt


40. SI unit of electrical field strength is

(a) Coulomb

(b) Volt

(c) Newton/coulomb

(d) Ampere


41. the electrical field intensity may be a vector quantity, and therefore the direction is

(a) Perpendicular to the direction of field

(b) Opposite to the direction of force

(c) Along the direction of force

(d) At a particular angle


42. With some extent charge, the electrical strength at an infinite distance is

(a) Zero

(b) Infinite

(c) Volt — m-1

(d) Positive


43. Work done in bringing unit charge from infinity thereto point is an electronic field is named

(a) potential difference

(b) Resistance

(c) Capacitance

(d) potential


44. electric field is robust when liens are

(a) Separated

(b) Closer

(c) Smaller

(d) Larger


45. at some extent in an electrical field is adequate to amount of work done in bringing unit positive charge from infinity thereto point

(a) Electric intensity

(b) electric potential

(c) electric potential

(d) Volt


46. statement is true about electrical potential

(a) Its Sl unit is volt

(b) it’s scalar quantity

(c) At any point v = w/q

(d) all of those


47. so as to store the charge a tool is used which is named

(a) Potential

(b) Capacitor

(c) Momentum

(d) voltage


48. SI unit of capacitance

(a) Farad (F)

(b) Coulomb

(c) Newton

(d) Voltage


49. Parallel plate capacitor contains two metal

(a) Metal

(b) Insulator

(c) conductor

(d) All of those


50. Which is wrong for a parallel capacitor?

(a) v1 = v2 = v3 = v

(b) Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3

(c) Ce = C1 + C2 + C3

(d) Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3


51. The work done in moving the eclectic field may be a measure of

(a) Intensity of electrical field

(b) Resistance between two points

(c) Capacitance

(d) electric potential between two points


52. The potential difference between two points is one volt. the quantity of work done in moving a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to a different is

(a) One erg

(b) One Joule

(c) One eV

(d) One coulomb


53. electron volt is that the unit of

(a) electric potential

(b) electric energy

(c) electric current

(d) Capacitance


54. The electron energy is one electron — volt when it’s accelerated through a possible difference of

(a) One walt

(b) One joule

(c) One Coulomb

(d) One erg


55. electric potential may be a

(a) Vector quantity

(b) Scalar quantity

(c) Neither scalar nor vector

(d) Sometimes scalar and sometimes vector\





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Chapter 11

Sound

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options :


1,         The study of sound is called

(a) Acoustic  

(b) Optics

(c) Electrostatics   

(d) All of these


2.          Sound is produced by

(a) Propagation          

(b) Vibration

(c) Both of these   

(d) None of these


3.         Sound can travel only in presence of

(a) Medium    

(b) vacuum

(c) Air   

(d) Both a and c


4.           Sound is        Wave

(a) Electromagnetic

(b) Transverse

(c) Longitudinal        

(d) None of these


5. Characteristic by which We can differentiate two sounds of same loudness and pitch is called

(a) Loudness  

(b) Pitch         

(c) Quality     

(d) intensity of sound


6.         Pitch of sound depends on    

(a) Amplitude 

(b) frequency

(c) time period

(d) Displacement


7.         Distance between two consecutive compressions and rarefactions is the sound wave.

(a) Amplitude 

(b) Frequency

(c) Wave Length   

(d) none of these

\


8.         Loudness of sound depends on

(a) Amplitude of vibrating body         

(b) Area of vibrating body

(c) Distance of vibrating body

(d) All Of these


9.         is the characteristic of sound by which we will distinguish between a shrill and a grave sound.

(a) Pitch         

(b) loudness

(c) intensity

(d) quality


10.       Frequency of silent whistle Lies between

(a) 20,000Hz – 25,000Hz

(b) 20,000Hz – 35,000Hz

(c) 20Hz – 20,OOOHz

(d) 15000Hz – 40,000Hz


11.      The intensity of sound depends on the

(a) Time period          

(b) frequency

(c) Amplitude   

(d) None of these


12.       Intensity is a    quantity.

(a) Vector       

(b) Scalar

(c) Physical quantity

(d) None of these


13.    Intensity of faintest sound is

(a). 1012 Wm-2

(b) 10-12Wm-2

(c) 10-8Wm-2

(d) 10-9Wm-2


14.      Researcher in observed giraffes to stop and waitTor the others that were out of sight

(a) 1898          

(b) 1993          

(c)2013           

(d) None of these


15.       Bats can hear frequency up to

(a) 120, 000Hz           

(b) 2,000 Hz   

(c) 20, 000 Hz

(d) 15,000 Hz


16.       The loudness of sound is directly proportional to loéarithm of intensity, this Law is  called

(a) Weber Fechner Law

(b) Law of Gravitation

(c) Intensity Level

(d) Echo


17.       Voice of Child is

(a) Grave       

(b) Shrill        

(c) Faint          

(d) Loud


18.       I bell is equal to

(a) 20dB         

(b) 10dB

(c) I00dB        

(d) 50dB


19.       The amplitude of 100 dB sound is

(a) 1000          

(b) 10,000       

(c) I00, 000

(d) 1001000


20.       By using an__we can see sound waves.

(a) Electroscope        

(b) stroboscope

(c) Gastroscope         

(d) oscilloscope


21.       Echo of sound is

(a) Refraction 

(b) Reflection

(c) Diffraction

(d) Interference


22.       The sensation of sound persists in our brain about

(a) 1 s 

(b) 0.1 s

(c) 0.01s         

(d) 2s


23.       For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of obstacle from source of source of sound must be

(a) 34 m

(b) 17 m

(c) 38m

(d) 16m


24.       The speed of sound in solid is about   times that in gases.

(a) 5    

(b) 15  

(c) 20  

(d) 10


25.       The speed of sound in air at a2 atm pressure and at room temperature (21°C) is

(a) 320ms-1

(b) 360m/s

(c) 343ms-1

(d) None of these


26.       The speed of sound varies with

(a) Temperature         

(b) Humidity

(c) both a and b

(d) None of these than liquid and air


27.       The speed of sound in solid is

(a) Greater    

(b) Sinaller      

(c) Equal        

(d) None of these


28.       Bats can hear Frequencies up to 120,000Hz

(a) I0, 000Hz  

(b) 120,000Hz

(c) 1 2,00,000Hz

(d) 120,00,000Hz


29.       Mice can hear frequencies up to

(a) 35,00Hz    

(b) 35,000Hz  

(c) 45,00Hz

(d) 100,000 Hz


30.       Compressions are places Where air is slightly           than the surrounding air

(a) Less          

(b) Higher      

(c) Equal        

(d) None of these


31.       Rarefactions are places where air is slightly ___       than the surrounding air

(a) Less         

(b) Higher       

(c) Equal

(d) None of these


32.       The speed of sound in air was first accurately measured in

(a) 1838          

(b) 1738          

(c) 1638          

(d) 1938


33.       Such sound Which are pleasant to our ears are called

(a) Musical Sound    

(b) Noise        

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these


34.       Such sounds which are unpleasant to our ears are Called

(a) Musical Sound      

(b) Noise        

(c) Both a and b         

(d) None of these


35.       Corresponds to irregular and sudden vibrations-produced by some sound

(a) Noise        

(b) Musical- Sound

(c) Notes of tuning fork

(d) None of these


36.       The Level of noise in most countries is recommended

(a) 75-80dB    

(b) 85-90dB

(c) 95-100dB  

(d) 115-120dB


37.       The method used to absorb undesirable sound by soft and porous surface is called

(a) Acoustics

(b) Echos       

(c) Intensity

(d) Pitclu


38.       Multiple reflections called      

(a) Acoustics  

(b) reverberations    

(c) Vibration

(d) All of these


39.       We hear sound produce by muSical instrument-such as                 

(a) Flute          

(b) Violin         

(c) Harmomc 

(d) All of these


40.       For a normal person audible frequency range for sound wave lie between

(a) 10th and 10 Khz

(b) 20 Hz and 20KHz

(c) 25Hz and 25 KHz

(d) 30Hz and 30 KHz


41.       Noise correspond        vibration

(a) Irregular    

(b) Sudden     

(c)Both a and ‘b’

(d) Slowly slowly


42.       Noise has negative effects on human health it cause except

(a) Aggression

(b) Hypertension        

(c) stress  level

(d) Fever/flu


43.       Which are the acoustic protection except

(a) Lecture Halls        

(b) Auditorium

(c) Theater halls         

(d) Kitchen


44.       Audible frequency range is

(a) 200Hz-2000Hz

(b) 15Hz-15000Hz

(c) 20Hz-20KHz

(d) None of these


45.       Old people cannot hear sound even above   

(a) 20, OOHz 

(b) 15 KlHz     

(c) 15,000 Hz

(d) Both (b) and (c)


46.       Which bird fly easily between wires in the black room         

(a) Sparrow    

(b) Bat

(c) Cow          

(d) Parrot


47.       The range of the frequency which human, ear can hear is called

(a) Audible frequency range

(b) Ultrasonic waves

(c) Transonic waves

(d) None of these


48.       Sound waves with frequency less than 20Hz are called       

(a) Ultrasonic 

(b) Infrasonics          

(c) Notes

(d) Acoustic


49.       Ultrasound is the frequency of sound higher than                 

(a) 20Hz         

(b) 20KHz      

(c) 15,000 Hz

(d) 25,000 1-Iz


50.       Infrasonic is the frequency of sound less thin           

(a) 20Hz         

(b) 20 KHz      

(c) 15,000 Hz 

(d) 25,000 Hz





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Chapter 10

Simple harmonic motions & waves

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options:     

1.         A spider detects its prey due to ____ produced in the web  

(a) Movement

(b) Disturbance          

(c) Vibration  

(d) Elasticity


2.         A body is said to be ___ if it moves back and forth about a point 

(a) least circulate       

(b) vibrating  

(c) rotating

(d) none of these


3.         The particles of the solid Can vibrate about their

(a). vertices    

(b) edges.

(c) mean position     

(d) length


4.         Vibration is also known as

 (a) Trip

(b) Movement

(c) Oscillation

(d) Circulation  Motion of Mass Attached to spring


5.         Motion of mass attached to spring is an example of motion.

(a) simple harmonic

(b) linear         

(c) circular      

(d) vibration


6.         The force applied on a body is directly proportional to the change in length. This is,

(a) Weber Fechner law          

(b) Hooke’s Law

(c) Law of gravitation 

d) Archimedes principle


7.         The maximum potential energy of a vibrating mass attached to a spring is at ___

(a)Equilibrium position

(b) Extreme position

(c) Between equilibrium and extreme positions

(d) All the above


8.         In F = kx , k indicates,

(a)force constant       

(b) spring constant  

(c) constant    

(d) displacement


9.         The value of k depends upon of spring.

(a)length         

(b) width         

c) elasticity     

(d) stiffness


10.       The value of spring constant in case of soft spring is :

(a) Small

(b) large

(c ) mild

(d) none


1 1.      Force exerted on the body is always directed at the displacement of mass.

(a) towards     

(b) opposite to          

(c) at   

(d) away from


12.       force always pushes or pulls the object performing oscillatory motion towards the mean position.

(a) gravitational          

(b) applied                 

(c) spring        

(d) restoring force


13.       The magnitude of the restoring force _____ with the distance from the mean position. 

(a). decreases

(b) not change

(c) increases

(d) remains same


14.       Due to the mass it does not stop at the mean position but continues its motion.

(a) restoring force      

(b) inertia      

(c) reactional force    

(d) gravitational force


 15.      The speed of mass ____ As it moves towards the extreme position.

(a)remains sonle        

(b) increases  

(c) decreases

(d) none of these


16.       The ratio of exerted force to displacement is called 

(a) Hooke’s. Law        

(b) spring constant     

(c) restoring force    

(d) All of these


17.       Kinetic energy is ____ at an extreme position. 

(a)minimum   

(b) moderate

(c) high           

(d) zero


18.       In the ball  and bowl system the ___ force acts as a restoring force.

(a) gravitational        

(b) applied      

(c) reactional  

(d) none of these


19.       Ball and bowl system is an example of

(a)gravitational           

(b) Law of mass action

(c) SHM         

(d) Hooke’s law


20.       In ball and bowl system the mean position is at

(a) Earth         

(b) extreme position

(c) floor of bowl          

(d) centre of bowl


21.       A human eardrum can oscillate back and forth up to ____ times in one second 

(a)20,000        

(b) 2,000         

(c) 200,000     

(d) 200


22.       The displacement of an object in SHM when the kinetic energy and potential energy is equal ___

(a) Equilibrium position

(b) Extreme position

(c) In the middle of equilibrium and   extreme positions  

(d) All the above


23.       The to and fro motion of ball about mean position Continues till all its energy is lost due to ___

(a) gravitational          

(b) frictional force      

(c) friction     

(d) weight Motion of Simple Pendulum


24.       In ____ position, the net force on bob is zero and the bob is stationary.

(a)equilibrium           

(b) frictional    

(c) extreme    

(d) none of these


25.       The period of a pendulum is independent of its

(a) length        

(b) mass         

(c) amplitude  

(d) both b and c


26.       Transmission can be heard ira such areas where the waves can not reach directly due to:

(a) Reflection 

(b) Refraction 

(c) Interference          

(d) Diffraction


27.       Which is example of simple harmonic motion

(a)up and         motion of’ leaf in water pond

(b) motion of a ceiling fan

(c) motion of   Clock  

(d) none these


28.       The time in which the vibrating body to complete one vibration is called

(a) Frequency

(b) Time period        

(c) Pitch         

(d) Altitude      


29.       If the mass of bob of a simple pendulum is doubled, its time period

(a) is doubled 

(b) becomes four times

(c) remains the same           

(d) none of the above


30.       Diffraction of waves can clearly be observed if size of the slit or obstacle is nearly  equal to ___ of wave:

(a)Trough       

(b) Crest         

(c) Amplitude 

(d) Wax elength


31.       Frequency is of time period

 (a) reciprocal           

(b) inversely proportional

(c) directly proportional

(d) none these


 32.      The product of frequency and time period is equal to:

a) V

b)  1

c)  0

d) H


 33.      Christian Huygen invented the pendulum clock in

(a) 1658          

(b) 1657          

(c) 1656          

(d) 1654          


34.       The net force is zero when bob of simple pendulum is

(a) Moving with uniform speed          

(b) at rest 

(c) Both of these        

(d) none of these


35.       In case of simple pendulum which component of weight acts as restoring force 

(a) mg sin 0

(b) mg cos 0

(c) mg

(d) None of these


 36.      In SHM acceleration of vibrating body is always directed towards  

 (a) extreme position  

(b) away from extreme position

(c) towards Illean position  

(d) way from extreme position     


     

37.       In SHM acceleration of vibratory motion is maximum At

(a) mean position       

(b) extreme position

(c) Both a and b         

(d) None of these


38.       In SHM velocity of vibrating b ‘(l        maximum at

(a) Mean position     

(b) extreme

(c.) both a & b

(d) none


39.       In SHM velocity of vibråiing body is zero at

(a) Mean position       

(b) Extreme   

(c) Both a and b         

(d) non these


40.        The bending of waves around the corners of obstacles is:

(a) Reflection   

(b) Refraction-   

(c) Interference   

(d) Diffraction


41.       Water and light waves are

(a) transverse waves

(b) longitudinal wave

(c) electromagnetic waves

(d) None of these


42.       If mass of bob of simple pendulum is twiced its time period will

(a) doubled     

(b) Four tinies 

(c) remain the same

(d) none of these


43.       Which one of the following is not example of SHM  

(a) Mass attached to spring   

(b) ball and bowel system      

(c) simple pendulum

(d) A bouncing ball


44.       Time period of simple pendulum is independent of

(a) mass

(b) Amplitude 

(c) length

(d) Both a and b 


45.       Time required to complete one cycle is called

(a) alliplitude   

(b) frequency 

(c) Time period         

(d) none of these


46.       Number of vibrations completed in one second is called

(a) Frequency           

(b) tilne period

(e) Amplitude   

(d) none of these


47.       ___  developed the first pendulum clock that could accurately measure time. 

(a) Galileo      

(b) Architnedes          

(c) Einstein     

(d) Huygens  


48.       Vibratory motion of ideal systems when there is no friction or resistance continues ___

(a) indefinitely          

(b) directly      

(c) definitely   

(d) all of these\


49.       The oscillations of a system in the presence of some resistive force are  ___

(a) ‘”ave motion          

(b) wavelength           

(c) damped oscillations

(d) both a and b


50.       Shock absorbers damp vibrations and convert their energy into       ___ energy of oil.

(a) kinetic       

(b) potential    

(c) solar

(d) heat


 51.       ___ are travelling disturbances.

(a) waves       

(b) Power

(c.) frequency  

(d) tune           


52.       Wave transfer

(a) energy      

(b) Power       

(c) frequency

(d) disturbance


 53.      The are ___ basic types of waves:

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5


54.       Such waves which require medium for their production and propagation are called            waves;

(a) Radio        

(b) some electromagnetic

(c) Mechanical rays

(d) x rays


55.       Electromagnetic. waves consist of electrié .and magnetic fields oscillating to each other

(a) opposite    

(b) perpendicular     

(c) in accordance       

(d) both a and b


56.       Heat and light waves are

(a) electromagnetic  

(b) daniped     

(c) mechanical           

(d) none


57.       __ are parts of longitudinal waves where loops of spring are far apart from each other.

(a) compression         

(b) rarefactions         

(c) crest          

(d) troughs


 58.      Waves which do not require medium is called

(a) Electromagnetic waves       

(b) Mechanical waves   

(c) Both a and b   

(d) none of these


59.       Electromagnetic waves consist of

(a) electric field          

(b) Mågnetic field

(c) electric field and magnetic field

(d) none of these


60.       Heat and light waves are some example of

(a) Mechanical waves

(b) Transverse wave  

(c) Longitudinal aves  

(d) Electromagnetic waves





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CHAPTER 9

TRANSFER OF HEAT

Encircle the correct answer from the given choices.

1. In solids, heat is transferred by:

(a) Radiation

(b) conduction.

(c) convection

(d) absorption


2 What happens to the thermal conductivity of a wall if its thickness is doubled?

(a) Becomes double

(b) remains the same

(c) Becomes half.

(d) becomes one fourth


3 Metals are good conductor of heat due to the:

(a) Free electrons .

(b) big size of their molecules

(c) small size of their molecules

(d) rapid vibration of their atoms


4 In gases, heat is mainly transferred by:

(a) Molecular collision

(b) conduction

(c) convection.

(d) radiation


5 Convection of heat is the process of heat transfer due to the molecules

(a) Random motion

(b) downward movement

(c) upward movement

(d) free movement.


6 False ceiling is done to:

(a) Lower the height of ceiling

(b) keep the roof clean

(c) cool the room

(d) insulate the ceiling.


7 Rooms are heated using gas heaters by:

(a) Conduction only

(b) convection and radiation.

(c) Radiation only

(d) convection only


8 Land breeze blows from:

(a) See to land during night

(b) sea to land during the day

(c) Land to sea during night.

(d) land to sea during the day


9 Which of the following is a good radiator of heat?

(a) A shining silvered surface

(b) A dull black surface.

(c) A white surface

(d) A green colored surface


10 Styrofoam is a:

(a) Conductor

(b) Semiconductor

(c) Bad conductor.

 (d) None of them


11 Unit of thermal conductivity is:

(a) Wm-1 K-1

(b) Wm-2K-1

(c) Wm-1 K-1

(d) Wm2K-1


12.       Ice is an:

(a) Good conductor   

(b) Bad conductor

(c) Perfect Conductor

(d) None


13.       How many methods of transmission of heat there are :

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4


14.       Which of the following is best for insulation?

(a) Glass        

(b) Air

(c) Brass        

(d) Fiber glass


15.       Transmission of heat from one body to another body by the interaction of atoms and electrons:

(a) Conduction         

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation  

(d) All of above


16.       Transfer of heat by the actual movement of molecules:

(a) Conduction           

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation  

(d) All of above


17.       Geysers work on the principle of:

(a) Conduction           

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation  

(d) All of above          


18.       Transmission of heat by waves without affecting medium on its way:

(a) Conduction           

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation 

(d) All of above


19.       Ventilation in our houses is only possible due to:

(a) Conduction           

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation  

(d) All of above


20.       Heat from sun reaches on earth by:

(a) Conduction           

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation 

(d) All of above


21.       Water is a:

(a) Good conductor

(b) Poor conductor

(c) Super conductor

(d) Insulator


22.       Feathers of the birds are:

(a) Conductor

(b) Semiconductor

(c) Insulators  

(d) None of them


23.       Land and sea breezes are due to:

(a) Conduction

(b) Convection

(c) Radiation  

(d) All of them


24.       Global warming in the world is due to:

(a) Greenhouse effect

(b) Land and sea breezes

(c) Radiation  

(d) None of them


25.       Black surfaces are   emitter:

(a) Best          

(b) Good

(c) Worst        

(d) Poor


26.       Shining silvered surfaces are ———– reflector:

(a) Best          

(b) Good

(c) Worst        

(d) Poor


27.       Coloured surfaces are   absorber

(a) Best          

(b) Good

(c) Worst        

(d) Poor\


28.       The gases in the Earth’s atmosphere, which causes the greenhouse effect:

(a) Carbon dioxide     

(b) Water vapors

(c) Both a & b           

(d) None of them


29.       Which one is (are) the insulator (s)?

(a) Cork          

(b) Cotton

(c) Rubber      

(d) All of them


30.       Movement of water on heating is shown by the crystal of:

(a) Sodium chloride

(b) Potassium permanganate

(c) Calcium carbonate           

(d) None of them





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CHAPTER 8

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options


1.         All the bodies expand   on heating:

(a) Variable    

(b) Constantly

(c) Uniformly

(d) All of them


2.         Temperature is the:    

(a) Mass contained by the body        

(b) Force of the molecules of body

(c) Degree of hotness or coldness of the body

(d) none of above


3.         The SI unit of temperature is:

(a) °C

(b) °F

(c) K

(d) °K


4.         Temperature of 30 oc in Fahrenheit is:         

(a) 86 °F         

(b) 80 °F

(C) 30 °F        

(d) 90 °F


5.         Human normal body temperature of 37 oc in Fahrenheit is:

(a) 98. 6 °F     

(b) 98 °F

(c) 100 °F

(d) None of above


6.         Boiling point of water in Fahrenheit is:           

(a) 100 °F       

(b) 273 °F

(c) 212 °F       

(d) 373 °F


7.         Celsius equivalent of OK is:

(a) -273 °C

(b) -459.4 °C

(c) 0 °C

(d) 100 °C


8.         Fahrenheit equivalent of OK is:

(a) -273 °F      

(b) -459.4 °F

(c) 0 °F

(d) 100 °F


9.         Heat is a type of   energy:

(a) Kinetic     

(b) Potential

(c) Mechanical

(d) None of above


10.       Linear expansion of a rod occur along  dimension (s):

(a) One          

(b) Two

(c) Three        

(d) All


11.       The characteristic of unequal expansion of different metals is employed in a device known as:

(a) Thermometer       

(b) Burner

(c) Calorimeter           

(d) Thermostat


12.       Linear expansion depends on:

(a) Length of rod

(b) Change in temperature

(c) Nature of material of rod

(d) All of above


13. Thermostat works on the principle of:

(a) Unequal expansion of solids    

(b) Pascal’s law

(c) Anomalous expansion of water    

(d) Vaporization


14.       Thermostat is used in:

(a) Electric iron          

(b) Refrigerator

(c) Fire alarm 

(d) All of above


15.       SI unit of Coefficient of linear & volume expansion is:

(a) m

(b) K

(c) K-1

(d) °C


16.       Volume expansion depends on:

(a) Volume of block

(b) Change in temperature

(c) Nature of material of block

(d) All of above


18.       There are __ type (s) of expansion (s) take place in a liquid filled in a container:

(a) One           

(b) Two

(c) Three       

(d) Four


19.       The liquid (s) used in thermometers is (are):

(a) Mercury    

(b) Alcohol

(c) Water        

(d) Both a & b


20.       Ice is a (an):

(a) Good conductor   

(b) Bad conductor

(c) Perfect Conductor

(d) None


21.       The quantity of heat that causes 1K change in temperature in a substance of mass 1 Kg is called:

(a) Specific heat       

(b) Latent heat

(c) Heat of exchange 

(d) None of above


22.       Unit of specific heat is:

(a) Jkg-lK        

(b) JkgK-1

(c) Jkg-lK-l

(d) J


23.       Which among the following has highest specific heat?

(a) Water                  

(b) Ice

(c) Mercury    

(d) Alcohol


24.       Specific heat of water is:       

(a) 2100 Jkg-1 K1       

(b) 2500 Jkg-1 K1

(C) 3200 Jkg-1 K1       

(d) 4200 Jkg-1 K1


25.       Climate of regions near sea shore remains moderate due to:

(a) Greater specific heat of water  

(b) Less specific heat of water

(c) Low freezing point of water          

(d) High boiling point of water


26.       Cause of land and sea breeze is:

(a) Greater specific heat of water

(b) Less specific heat of water

(c) Low freezing point of water          

(d) High boiling point of water


27.       The device used to measure of the specific heat of an object is:

(a) Thermometer       

(b) Burner

(c) Calorimeter         

(d) Thermostat


28.       Quantity of heat that changes one kilogram of a of solid into liquid is called:

(a) Specific heat        

(b) Latent heat of fusion

(c) Latent heat of vaporization           

(d) All of above


29.       Quantity of heat that changes one kilogram of a of liquid into gas is called:

(a) Specific heat        

(b) Latent heat of fusion

(c) Latent heat of vaporization

(d) All of above


30.       Unit of latent heat is:  

(a) Jkg-1K       

(b) Jkg

(c) J

(d) Jkg1


31.       Latent heat of fusion of ice is:

(a) 260,000 Jkg1

(b) 336,000 Jkg1

(c) 3,260,000 Jkg1

(d) None of above


32.       Latent heat of vaporization of water is:

(a) 260,000 Jkg1

(b) 336,000 Jkg1

(c) 3,260,000 Jkg1

(d) None of above





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MCQsFoundry.com brings to you 500+ 9th Standard Physics Mcqs which are new and latest. These Mcqs are never published on internet so far. For full information about all PPSC / FPSC / CSS / PMS latest jobs visit theiteducation.com

01 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 01 02 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 02
03 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 03 04 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 04
05 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 05 06 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 06
07 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 07 08 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 08
09 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 09 10 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 10
11 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 11 12 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 12
Top 500+ New Physics Subject MCQs with Answers | Download PDF

CHAPTER 7

PROPERTIES OF MATTER

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options


1.         The quality of the matter due to which it restores its size and shape when force ceases to act on it:

(a) Inertia        

(b) Elasticity

(c) Permittivity

(d) Rigidity


2.         The force that acts on unit area of an body and thus changes its shape or size:

(a) Stress      

(b) Strain

(c) Yong’s Modulus    

(d) Elastic limit


3.         In system international, the unit of stress is:

(a) Nm2

(b) Nm1

(c) Nm

(d) None of above


4.         The ratio of change in length to the original length will be :

(a) Stress       

(b) Tensile strain

(c) Young’s Modulus  

(d) Elastic limit


5.         When stress is increased, the strain also goes on:    

(a) Decreasing           

(b) Increasing

(c) Constant   

(d) All of above


6.         The law about stress and strain is presented by:

(a) Hook        

(b) Newton

(c) Joule         

(d) Archimedes


7.         According to Hook’s law, the elastic limit stress and strain has  proportion of:

(a) Inverse      

(b) Direct

(c) Same        

(d) None of above


8.         The ratio of tensile stress and tensile strain is:

(a) Variable    

(b) Pascal’s Law

(c) non-uniform          

(d) None of above


9.         The unit of Young’s modulus is:

(a) Nm2

(b) Nm1

(c) Nm

(d) None of above


10.       The force exerted perpendicularly on unit area of a body is known as :

(a) Strain        

(b) Constant

(c) Pressure  

(d) Work


11.       The unit of pressure is:

(a) Nm2

(b) Nm1

(c) Pa 

(d) Both a & c


12.       Pressure depends upon:

(a) Density     

(b) Depth

(c) Temperature         

(d) Both a & b


13.       If a body is at a depth of ‘h’ from the liquid surface of density ‘p’, then the pressure ‘P’ on that body is:

(a) P = w/t      

(b) P = pgv

(c) P = pgh    

(d) p = F/a


14.       The law about pressure on the object is presented by:

(a) Joule         

(b) Pascal

(c) Newton     

(d) Galileo


15.       Hydraulic press is based on:  

(a) Joule’s law

(b) Pascal law

(c) Newton’s law        

(d) Young’s Modulus


16.       If the pressure is exerted on a liquid, liquid transmits it:

(a) Variably    

(b) Equally

(c) In all directions      

(d) both b & c


17.       Hydraulic brake works on the principle of:    

(a) Hydraulic press    

(b) Pascal law

(c) Joule’s law

(d) Both a & b


18.         tells about the floating and sinking of objects:

(a) Pascal’s law          

(b) Newton’s law

(c) Archimedes principle    

(d) None of them


19.       Because of pressure difference on an object, an upward force acts on the object called :

(a) Weight      

(b) Buoyant force

(c) Stress       

(d) All of above


20.       Buoyant force is equal to the ———- of the liquid displaced by the object:

(a) Volume     

(b) Density

(c) Weight     

(d) All of above


21.       The body will float on the liquid surface when:

(a) W > F

(b) W < F

(c) W = F

(d) None of above


22. The body will sink in the liquid surface when:

(a) W > F

(b) W < F

(c) W = F

(d) None of above


23.       Submarine works on the principle of:

(a) Pascal’s law          

(b) Newton’s law

(c) Archimedes principle    

(d) None of them


24.       When temperature of the gas increases, gas pressure ————–:

(a) Increases 

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains same     

(d) None of above


25.       If quantity of the gas is increased in the container then gas pressure ——-:

(a) Increases 

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains same     

(d) None of above


26.       According to Kinetic Molecular theory, gases exert pressure on the walls of the container due to their:

(a) Weight      

(b) Mass

(c) Collisions  

(d) All of above


27.       The molecules of the matter are always remain in the state of:

(a) Rest          

(b) Plasma

(c) Motion     

(d) Tension


28.       The energy possessed by the molecules of the matter is due to its motion:

(a) P.E.           

(b) K.E.

(c) Sound       

(d) None of above


29.       When temperature of the matter increases, intermolecular forces ——:

(a) Increases  

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains same     

(d) None of above


30.       Molecules of which state of matter have strongest attractive for

(a) Solid         

(b) Liquid

(c) Gasses     

(d) Plasma


31.       How many states of mother are?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) many


32.       Weakest attractive forces are in

(a) solid          

(b) liquid

(c) gases       

(d) Plasma


33.       Weakest attractive forces are in

(a) solid          

(b) liquid

(c) gases       

(d) plasma


34.       Ionic state of matter is called 

(a) gas

(b) plasma

(c) liquid         

(d) none of these


35.       Plasma is

(a) Good conductor   

(b) Bad conductor

(c) Semiconductor   

(d) non conductor


36.       Unit of density

(a) kg m3           

(b) kg m-2

(c) kg m-3       

(d) kg m2


37.       Unit of pressure is      

(a) Nm2

(b) Pa

(c) Nm

(d) Both a & b


38.       The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure

(a) Colorimeter           

(b) Hypsometer

(c) Barometer           

(d) None of these


39.       A solid object is:

(a) Not elastic below the elastic limit 

(b) Elastic above the elastic limit

(c) Elastic below the elastic limit   

(d) None of above





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Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download
Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download

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01 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 01 02 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 02
03 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 03 04 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 04
05 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 05 06 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 06
07 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 07 08 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 08
09 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 09 10 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 10
11 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 11 12 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 12
Top 500+ New Physics Subject MCQs with Answers | Download PDF

CHAPTER 6

WORK AND ENERGY

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options


1.         Product of force and distance covered in the direction of force is:

(a) Acceleration         

(b) Resistance

(c) Work        

(d) Specific heat


2.         For work   conditions should be fulfilled:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4


3.         Work is   quantity:

(a) Scalar       

(b) Vector

(c) Base         

(d) None of above


4.         Unit of work is:

(a) N

(b) Nm

(c) J

(d) Both b & c          


                                      

5.         Work done will be   if no force act on the body:

(a) Maximum 

(b) Minimum

(c) Zero          

(d) All of above


6.         if displacement is   to force then the Work done will be maximum

(a) Parallel     

(b) Perpendicular       

(c) Tangent    

(d) Normal


7.         Work done will be zero if displacement is   to force:             

(a) Parallel      

(b) Perpendicular

(c) Tangent    

(d) Normal


8.           if a force of one Newton acts on the body and it covers the distance of 1 meter in the direction of force then the Work done will be one ___

(a) Watt          

(b) Joule

(c) Newton     

(d) Coulomb


9.         One Mega joule is equal to:   

(a) 106 J         

(b) 103 J

(c) 109 J         

(d) 102 J


10.       What will be the magnitude of work if a force of 25 N pulls a stone through a distance of 5 m in its direction:

(a) 25 J           

(b) 50 J

(c) 75 J           

(d) 125 J


11.       Which unit is equal to kgm2s 2 in the units given below:

(a) Joule        

(b) Newton

(c) Watt          

(d) Meter


12.       Rate of doing work with respect to time is known as:           

(a) Energy      

(b) Power

(c) Momentum           

(d) None of above


13.       Unit of power is:

(a) Watt          

(b) Joule

(c) Newton     

(d) Coulomb


14.       How much power is used by a 40 kg athlete by climbing 10m high ladder in 10 s:

(a) 4 W

(b) 40 W

(c) 400 W

(d) 4000 W


15.       What will be the power of a machine doing 10 J work in 5 seconds?

(a) 2 W

(b) 10 W

(c) 25 W         

(d) 50 W


16.       Ability of a body to do work is known as:      

(a) Force        

(b) Momentum

(c) Power       

(d) Energy


17.       There are   basic kinds of energy:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4


18.       Energy is ——— quantity:

(a) Vector       

(b) Scalar

(c) Base         

(d) None of above


19.       Unit of Energy in System International is:

(a) Watt          

(b) Joule

(c) Newton     

(d) Coulomb


20.       Energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called   energy:

(a) Kinetic     

(b) Potential

(c) Mechanical

(d) All of above


21.       A bowler during playing cricket throws a ball of mass 200 g with a velocity of 20 ms1 .Its kinetic energy will be:

(a) 4 J

(b) 40 J

(c) 400 J         

(d) 4000 J


22.       If the velocity of a body is doubled then What will be the kinetic energy of a body?

(a) Doubled    

(b) Four times

(c) Eight times

(d) Half


23.       What will be the kinetic energy of a body if its mass is doubled?

(a) Doubled   

(b) Four times

(c) Eight times

(d) Half


24.       What will be the kinetic of a car of mass 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 20 ms-1 ?

(a) 2 x 102 J   

(b) 2 x 107 J

(c) 2 x 105 J   

(d) 2 x 107 J


25.       Ability of a body to do work due to its position is called —– —- energy:

(a) Kinetic       

(b) Potential

(c) Mechanical

(d) All of above


26.       Ability of a body to do work due to its height from the surface of earth is called  energy:

(a) Gravitational Potential   

(b) Elastic Potential

(c) Chemical Potential

(d) Attraction


27.       When a ball is lifted to a height ‘h’ from the ground, it will posses ——energy:

(a) Kinetic

(b) Gravitational potential

(c) Elastic potential

(d) Mechanical


28.       Total energy of the system:

(a) Increases  

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains same    

(d) All of above


29.       For movement of our body   energy is used:

(a) Heat          

(b) Electrical

(c) Chemical  

(d) Mechanical


30.       1 hp =

(a) 726 W       

(b) 736 W

(c) 746 W       

(d) 756 W


31.       For the propagation of signals in our body   energy is used:

(a) Heat          

(b) Electrical

(c) Chemical  

(d) Mechanical


32.        Which energy is used For maintaining the body temperature  :

(a) Heat          

(b) Electrical

(c) Chemical  

(d) Mechanical


33.       Increase in K.E is equal to:

(a) Increase in P.E     

(b) Decrease in P.E

(c) No effect  

(d) Both a & b


34.       Increase in P.E is equal to:

(a) Increase in K.E     

(b) Decrease in K.E

(c) No effect  

(d) Both a & b


35.       Decrease in K.E is equal to:

(a) Increase in P.E    

(b) Decrease in P.E

(c) No effect  

(d) Both a & b


36.       Decrease in P.E is equal to:

(a) Increase in K.E   

(b) Decrease in K.E

(c) No effect  

(d) Both a & b


37.       What will be the power of the motor if a motor lifts a weight of 5N up to the height of 2m in 4s.?

(a) 2.5 W

(b) 5 W

(c) 20 W         

(d) 10 W


38.       Energy of the water stored in the dam is:

(a) Elastic potential energy

(b) Gravitational potential energy

(c) Kinetic energy

(d) Mechanical energy


39.       How many types of mechanical energy are there?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4





Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download Chapter 5

MCQsFoundry.com brings to you 500+ Physics Mcqs which are new and latest. These Mcqs are never published on internet so far. MCQsFoundry.com is committed to provide 9th Class Physics MCQs with Answers. Here are the Top 500+ Physics Mcqs (Volume 1) is being published. Physics 9th Class MCQs From the Text book are are the best source for job test preparation in Pakistan.

Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download
Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download

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01 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 01 02 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 02
03 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 03 04 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 04
05 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 05 06 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 06
07 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 07 08 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 08
09 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 09 10 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 10
11 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 11 12 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 12
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CHAPTER 5

GRAVITATION

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options


1.         The  prediction about artificial satellites about 300 years ago.

(a) Galileo      

(b) Newton

(c) Einstein     

(d) Faraday


2.         Unit of gravitational field strength is:


(a) N

(b) N kg-1

(c) J

(d) Nm


3.         Distance of the moon from Earth is?

(a) 38, 000 km

(b) 3, 80, 000 km

(c) 3, 000, 000 km     

(d) 30, 000 km


4.         Speed of GPS satellite is:

(a) 7.9 kms1

(b) 3.87 kms1

(c) 5.6 kms1

(d) 5.0 kms1


5.         If the distance between two masses is half then what will be the force of gravitation becomes:

(a) One fourth                       

(b) Four times

(c) Doubled    

(d) Half


6.         In SI , the value of G is:

(a) 6.4 x 106Nm2kg2  

(b) 6.4 x 10-11Nm2kg2

(c) 6.67 x 1011Nm2kg2           

(d) 6.67 x 10– 11Nm2kg2   


      

7.         What is the Radius of earth :

(a) 6.4 x 106 km         

(b) 6.4 x 106m

(c) 6 x 106m

(d) 6 x 106 km


8.         The System International unit of gravitational force is:

(a) Nm2kg2

(b) Newton

(c) ms2

(d) both “a” and b


9.         What will be the value of G if mass of the earth becomes four times will be:

(a) No change           

(b) Four times

(c) One fourth

(d) Doubled


10.       The mass of Earth is approximately:

(a) 6.9 x 1024 kg         

(b) 6.0 x 1024 kg

(c) 6.0 x 1024 kg        

(d) 5500 x 1024 kg


11.       As we move to top the value of G becomes:

(a) Unchanged          

(b) Increases

(c) Decreases

(d) Doubled


12.       The force which pulls the object towards the center of circle is known as ——-—- force:

(a) Frictional   

(b) Coulomb

(c) Centripetal          

(d) Gravitational


13.       When a body is at a height equal to radius of earth above the surface of the earth. What will be the value of gh?   

(a) 4g

(b) 2g

(c) g/2 

(d) g/4


14.       What is not true about g?

(a) g is different at different places    

(b) g is greater at poles

(c) g is less at poles 

(d) g decrease as go higher


15.       If the weight of a body on the surface of earth is W. Then what will weight on the surface of moon  be:

(a) 6W

(b) W/6

(c) W/4

(d) W/8


16.       Our weight on mountain as compared to weight on the surface of earth.

(a) Equal        

(b) Greater

(c) Less         

(d) None of above


17.       If mass of both the objects is 1kg and distance between their centers is 1m then the gravitational force is equal to:

(a) G

(b) g

(c) V

(d) None of above


19.       An artificial satellite continuously revolving around the earth in different orbits with uniform speed due to what?

(a) Gravitational force         

(b) Frictional force

(c) Coulomb force     

(d) Electromagnetic force


20.       The Relative velocity of Geostationary satellite with respect to earth will be:

(a) 7.9 kms1    

(b) 11.2 kms1  

(c) 9.8 ms1       

(d) zero


21.       If a rocket is fired vertically in what speed that, it will start revolving around the earth:

(a) 8 ms1           

(b) 8 kms1        

(c) 9.8 ms1       

(d) 11.2 kms1  


22.       The Height of the Geostationary satellite above the surface of earth is:

(a) 1000 km

(b) 3600 km

(c) 36000 km 

(d) 42300 km


23.       Gravitational force on the surface of earth will be equals to:

(a) G

(b) g

(c) W

(d) All of above


24.       Weight of the body of mass 10 kg on the surface of moon will be:

(a) 160 N        

(b) 16N

(c) 1.62 N       

(d) None of above


25.      Earth’s gravitational force of attraction vanishes at:

(a) 6400 km

(b) infinity

(c) 42300 km

(d) 1000 km


26.       Value of g increases with the:

(a) Increase in mass of body

(b) increase in altitude

(c) decrease in altitude

(d) none of the above


27.      The value of g at a height one Earth’s radius above the surface of Earth is:

(a) 2 g

(b)1/2 g

(c) 1/3 g

(d) 1/4 g


28.    The value of g on the moon’s surface is 1.6 ms. Then What will the weight of a 100 kg body on the surface of the moon be?

(a) 100 N

(b) 160 N

(c) 1000 N

(d) 1600 N


29.       The altitude of geostationary orbits in which communications satellites are launched above the surface of Earth is:

(a) 850 km

(b) 1000 km

(c) 6400 km

(d) 42300 km


30.       The orbital speed of a low orbit satellite is:

(a) zero

(b) 8 ms

(c) 800 ms

(d) 8000 ms’


31.       Earth’s gravitational force vanishes at:

(A) 6400 km

(B) Infinity

(C) 42300 Km

(D) 1000 km


32.        Moon completes its one revolution around the earth in:

(A) One day

(B) 17.3 days

(C) 22.3 days

(D) 27.3 days


33.         What will be the orbital speed of a low orbit satellite :

(A) Zero

(B) 8 Km/s

(C) 800 ms-¹

(D) 8000 ms-¹


34.         The value of “g” at the moon is:

(A) 1.7 ms-²

(B) 1.6 ms-²

(C) 10 ms-²

(D) 9.8 ms-²


35.         A force which is inversely proportional to the square the distance between the centers of bodies is:

(A)Frictional force

(B) Centrifugal force

(C) Centripetal force

(D) Gravitational force


36.        The centre of gravity of an irregular shaped object can be found with the help of:

(A) Screw gauge

(B) Plumbline

(C) Meter rod

(D) Wedge





Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download Chapter 4

MCQsFoundry.com brings to you 500+ Physics Mcqs which are new and latest. These Mcqs are never published on internet so far. MCQsFoundry.com is committed to provide 9th Class Physics MCQs with Answers. Here are the Top 500+ Physics Mcqs (Volume 1) is being published. Physics 9th Class MCQs From the Text book are are the best source for job test preparation in Pakistan.

Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download
Top 9th Class Physics Subject Mcqs Pdf Download

MCQsFoundry.com brings to you 500+ 9th Standard Physics Mcqs which are new and latest. These Mcqs are never published on internet so far. For full information about all PPSC / FPSC / CSS / PMS latest jobs visit theiteducation.com

01 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 01 02 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 02
03 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 03 04 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 04
05 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 05 06 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 06
07 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 07 08 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 08
09 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 09 10 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 10
11 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 11 12 9th Class Physics Mcqs Chapter 12
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CHAPTER 4

TURNING EFFECTS OF FORCE

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the following options :

1.         If a number Of forces act on a body such that their points of action are different but lines of action are parallel to each other then these forces are known as forces:

(a) Same        

(b) Parallel

(c) Perpendicular       

(d) None of above


2.         If the direction of parallel forces is the same, then these are called forces:

(a) Same        

(b) Like Parallel

(c) Unlike Parallel      

(d) All of above


3.         If the direction of parallel forces is the opposite, then these are called  forces:

(a) Same        

(b) Like Parallel

(c) Unlike Parallel     

(d) All of above


4.         Addition of vectors are done by:

(a) Head to tail rule  

(b) Left hand rule

(c) Right hand rule     

(d) None of above


5.         Component of a vector acting along the x — axis is called:

(a) x — component

(b) horizontal component

(c) vertical component

(d) both a and b


6.         component of a vector acting along the y — axis is called:

(a) x — component

(b) horizontal component

(c) vertical component

(d) both a and b


7.       Value of sin 300 :

(a) 0.5 

(b) 0.866

(c) 0 707         

(d) none of them


8.         During the rotation the particles of the body rotate along fixed circles. The straight line joining the centres of these circles is called :

(a) Parallel line           

(b) Axis of rotation

(c) Both a & b 

(d) None Of above


9.         The rotational effect of a body is measured by a quantity known as:

(a) Acceleration         

(b) Velocity

(c) Displacement       

(d) Torque


10.       The rotation produced in a body depends upon  __ factors:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4


11.       Torque is a  quantity:

(a) Base         

(b) Vector

(c) Scalar       

(d) Both a & b


12.       The direction of torque is determined by:

(a) Left hand

(b) Right handrule

(c) Both a & b 

(d) None of above


13.       If the rotation produced in anticlockwise direction then the torque is taken as:

(a) Positive    

(b) Negative

(c) Opposite   

(d) Perpendicular


14.       If the rotation is produced in clock wise direction then the torque is taken as:

(a) Positive     

(b) Negative

(c) Opposite   

(d) Perpendicular


15.       According to right hand rule, if  is along the curl of the fingers of the right hand then the thumb points in the direction of the torque:

(a) Rotation   

(b) Parallel

(c) Force        

(d) Weight


16.       In System International, the unit of torque is:

(a) N

(b) Nm-2

(c) Nm2

(d) Nm


17.       The force which is acting perpendicularly downwards towards the earth is called:

(a) Torque      

(b) Weight

(c) Force of gravity    

(d) Both b & c


18.       The point at which whole weight of the body appears to act is called:

(a) Origin        

(b) Couple

(c) Centre of Gravity

(d) Reference point


19.       The position of the centre of gravity depends upon the         of the body:

(a) Size           

(b) Shape

(c) Weight      

(d) Force


20.       The centre of gravity of parallelogram, rectangle, square is the:

(a) Point of intersection of the medians

(b) Central point of axis

(c) Point of intersection of the diagonals

(d) Centre of parallelogram


21.       The centre of gravity of a regular shaped body is always on its centre of —————–:

(a) Body         

(b) Symmetry

(c) Medians    

(d) Axis


22.       The centre of gravity of triangle is the:

(a) Point of intersection of the medians

(b) Central point of axis

(c) Point of intersection of the diagonals

(d) Centre of parallelogram


23.       The centre of gravity of cylinder is the:

(a) Point of intersection of the medians

(b) Central point of axis

(c) Point of intersection of the diagonals

(d) Centre of parallelogram


24.       When two equal, opposite and parallel forces act at two points of the same body, they form a:

(a) Torque      

(b) Moment of a couple

(c) Force        

(d) Couple


25.             is always acting while opening or closing water tap, a lock, stopper of a bottle or jar:

(a) Couple     

(b) Weight

(c) Force        

(d) Mass


26.       The perpendicular distance between the line of action of force and centre of rotation and denoted by ‘r’ is called:

(a) Centre of gravity  

(b) Moment arm

(c) Displacement       

(d) Force


 27. The torque produced in a body due to a couple is equal to the product of one of the forces and the

(a) Couple      

(b) Force

(c) Like parallel force 

(d) Couple arm


28.       There are                      conditions of equilibrium:                 

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3    

(d) 4


29.       When the sum of all the force acting on a body is zero or the object is moving with uniform velocity then it will be in

(a) Rest          

(b) Motion

(c) Equilibrium         

(d) None of above


30.       According to First condition of equilibrium, the total of all the forces acting on the body should be —

(a) Positive     

(b) Zero

(c) None         

(d) All of above


31.       According to Second condition of equilibrium, the sum of all the torques acting on the body should be — —

(a) Positive     

(b) Zero

(c) None         

(d) All of above


32.       Sigma (E) is the Greek letter which is used to represent:

(a) Addition   

(b) Subtraction

(c) Multiplication

(d) Division


33.       There are ——-——- states of equilibrium:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4


34.       The equilibrium in which the body conics back to its original condition when sct free after slightly lifting frotn one side is — equilibrium:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral      

(d) None of’ above


35.       The equilibrium in which the body does not conue back to its original condition when set free after slightly lifting front one side is equilibrium:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral      

(d) None of above


36.       The type of equilibrium in which after  disturbance, the body again conies to rest position and center of gravity remains unchanged:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral     

(d) None of above


37.       In Stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity     ——- than (he original position:

(a) Raised      

(b) Lowered

(c) Reina In satna      

(d) All of above


38.       In Unstable equilibrium, the centre of gravity is   than the original position:

(a) Raised      

(b) Lowered

(c) Remain satne       

(d) All or above


39.       In Neutral equilibrium, the centre of gravity   than..? original position:

(a) Raised      

(b) Lowered

(c) Retnain sallie      

(d) All of above


40.       When an object is resting on the smooth horizontal surface, the weight or the object is balanced by –

(a) Nonnal Reaction 

(b) Torque

(c) Friction      

(d) Couple


41.       A meter rod on a wedge is an example of what in equilibrium

(a) Stable

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral

(d) None


42.       A book lying on the table is an example of   equilibrium:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral      

(d) None of above


43.       Motion of the football on the ground is an example of ——- equilibrium:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral     

(d) None of above


44.       The _  of a racing car is kept low to make its stable:

(a) Width        

(b) Height

(c) Length       

(d) Weight


45.       If the centre of gravity of the body is below the fulcrum then the body will be in  equilibrium:

(a) Stable       

(b) Unstable

(c) Neutral      

(d) None of above